Y'all are missing one point...
The slaves WERE NOT freed by the emancipation proclamation! Not ONE of them! The South had been a separate country, with its own fully functional government, for a year and a half when Lincoln issued the proclamation. It had no more legality in the CSA than it did in Spain or Russia.
If such power ever actually rested in the hands of the President, which it DID NOT, why didn't he set the slaves free in his own jurisdiction? Because he DID NOT posses that kind of power! If the president had such power as to just simply write down an idea and have it become law at his whim, we would be in a hell of a lot more trouble than we currently are! The emancipation proclamation WAS NOT a Law, NOR a Proposal for one! The document was not worth the paper it was written on. Lincoln's own Secretary of War, Stanton, actually told him as much, citing the irony of him trying to set free those slaves over whom he had absolutely NO legal jurisdiction, while leaving those slaves directly under his jurisdiction "Precisely as if this proclamation were not issued."
The slaves U.S. Grant personally held DURING the War were not freed by the emancipation proclamation, which was to have become effective on January 1, 1863, and were not set free until 1866, three years later, when the 13th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution was passed! Abraham Lincoln was already dead, so he had NOTHING to do with it!
But then the question of the legality of the 13th Amendment falls right along side that of the 14th Amendment, which I have already proven here on GBO to be illegal... Tennessee was the ONLY Confederate state to have rejoined the Union by 1866, which was done strictly by coercion. Tennessee, along with every other Confederate State was denied her own Legally elected officials, therefor, her "rejoining" the Union was not legal either...
Georgia didn't rejoin the Union until July of 1870 !
Was there ever actually a slave "problem?" If so, why does the North not share the blame equally with the South, because slaves existed in the North at the same time and for as long as they did in the South. Maybe not in the same numbers, but is not one "evil" still just as evil as 4 million?
How can you argue or complain about the fox being in your neighbor's hen house, when you are in there at the same time and you're only mad because the fruits of the fox's labor were more plentiful than your own?
Yes, slavery would have died a natural death, just as it did in every other part of the world, and without a single shot ever being fired. Had the war been over slavery, which it was not, and the South had been fighting to perpetuate slavery, which it did not, the South only needed to stay in the Union and slavery would have continued for many, many more years. The North NEVER had the votes in Congress to Legally abolish slavery, With OR Without The Southern States!
So, Gw, to answer your question:
I don't believe there ever WAS a slave "problem" in the South. If a "problem" existed at all, it was that of the UNITED STATES OF AMERICA allowing slavery to EVER exist within her borders. The Northern HYPOCRITES cried foul, while at the same time, they were just as guilty, if not More So!
Had slavery never been allowed in the U.S., the war would have still been fought because of the cultural differences between the two sections. The North was literally a money grubbing society, with their every purpose to make more of it. The South was more leisure oriented and didn't put such emphasis on wealth being constituted by the amount of money you had; i.e. wealth meant more than just having a lot of money...
SBG