..But of course, theren wasn the king's letters patent, a form of copyright on the KJV as with all the monarch's utterances, but the crown no longer
demands that it be respected.
Preceeding the KJV was the Geneva Bible in old English (1599), which were used by our Pilgrims (separatists) and served them well. So why didn't
old King James (the tyrant) rebel against the Geneva Bible?
Well, the Geneva Bible contained marginal notes which were abusive of royalty..so the old rascal didn't like it. fortunately, he did hire qualified
people to do the job. ..But so were the Geneva translators as with other for certain modern versions.
Sorry, I couldn't find a copyright reference to St Augustine's Bible of 1302, but I doubt such a copyright exists..
I have in my library two volumes defending the KJV only set.. Entitled.WHICH BIBLE and TRUE OR FALSE, both written by David Otis Fuller, DD.
Of course I have read them or they wouldn't be in my library..
After reading and reflection...I can see where he has some valid points, but fails on others. Since you back the KJV, I assume you have read
both..correct? If not, where do you derive your information from.
Problem is, langiuage evolves over time..and has done some radfical turns over the last 5 centuries.. Have you ever tried to read Chaucer, or even Samuel Pepys?
Of course, the 1611 KJV has been revised through the years, up until 1881, and some consider the NKJV of 1982, to be a further revision, by way
of language up date.
THank God for updates and revisions, below is a portion of shakespeare's HAMLET written in 1601, just 10 years prior to the publication of the KJV.
Try reading it, and understand why revisions are helpful..