OK. If thru some convoluted freak occurence of nature a husband where to possess a uterus. And his wife was capable of clitoral ejaculation, with said ejaculate having viable sperm, and stretching it even further, they conceived a child. Then NO I'd say it is ultimately the husbands choice
on what he wants done to his body.
The preceding far fetched scenario is my way of exemplifying the mentality of those that equate aborting a fetus in the first trimester to killing a child.
Obtuse questions deserve obtuse answers.